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At the Peterhead Morton game, a ball is played towards McManus who is in an offside position. The last Peterhead defender intercepts the pass but his touch is poor and the ball breaks off him to McManus. Offside is given but I thought that the defender played him on. Did the match officials get it right?

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At the Peterhead Morton game, a ball is played towards McManus who is in an offside position. The last Peterhead defender intercepts the pass but his touch is poor and the ball breaks off him to McManus. Offside is given but I thought that the defender played him on. Did the match officials get it right?

As far as I understand it, he's offside by your interpretation of the situation. If the defender has had to intercept the ball and merely failed to control it then there's no new phase of play to allow McManus to be onside.

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As I understood the rule, a player is offside if he is beyond the last defender at the moment the ball is played, not when he receives the ball so the decision would have correctly been given before the defender touches the ball.

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It depends on how close he is to the defender, without knowing that it's hard to say, if he's close to the defender(roughly 1.5m IIRC) he'd likely be deemed challenging for the ball and be offside, far away from him and he may well be on. Also depends if the defenders touch is deemed instinctive or not.

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At the Peterhead Morton game, a ball is played towards McManus who is in an offside position. The last Peterhead defender intercepts the pass but his touch is poor and the ball breaks off him to McManus. Offside is given but I thought that the defender played him on. Did the match officials get it right?

If that's what happened then, provided McManus didn't contribute to the poor touch, it's an incorrect decision by the officials.

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If it's deemed in the defenders possession (albeit if he makes a fucking arse of his touch) and it breaks to the attacker, then surely it's just the same as the defender misplacing a back pass to the keeper (and the striker running onto it)

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They have tampered with the offside rule so many times that it is now getting absurd. In yesterday's game at Balmoor, a long ball was played out of the Morton half to a player who was clearly offside just inside the Peterhead half, however, the player took about 6 strides to reach the ball and then the linesman put up his flag. This leads to loud shouts of derision as the player wasn't deemed offside until he touched the ball!!!

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If it's deemed in the defenders possession (albeit if he makes a fucking arse of his touch) and it breaks to the attacker, then surely it's just the same as the defender misplacing a back pass to the keeper (and the striker running onto it)

It's all in that touch. If it has rebounded off the defender, and I'm sure most referees would count attempted interceptions in that, then it's offside. If he actually tried to pass it back, or had it under control and then messed up, he'd be onside. I'm pretty sure that's how the rule is interpreted. Obviously that's how it must have been interpreted yesterday, so I'd guess if I'm wrong then the ref is as well (which, as we all know, is perfectly possible).

ETA: to use a different illustration, I would interpret it the same way as when a goalkeeper messes us his save and spills it at the feet of the forward who was in an offside position when the shot was taken i.e. active (gaining an advantage) when the ball was struck and therefore offside.

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At the Peterhead Morton game, a ball is played towards McManus who is in an offside position. The last Peterhead defender intercepts the pass but his touch is poor and the ball breaks off him to McManus. Offside is given but I thought that the defender played him on. Did the match officials get it right?

Officials got it wrong, shouldn't have been given offside; offside amendment this season or last according to an ex-ref at my work.

Truly stupid rule.

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It's all in that touch. If it has rebounded off the defender, and I'm sure most referees would count attempted interceptions in that, then it's offside. If he actually tried to pass it back, or had it under control and then messed up, he'd be onside. I'm pretty sure that's how the rule is interpreted. Obviously that's how it must have been interpreted yesterday, so I'd guess if I'm wrong then the ref is as well (which, as we all know, is perfectly possible).

ETA: to use a different illustration, I would interpret it the same way as when a goalkeeper messes us his save and spills it at the feet of the forward who was in an offside position when the shot was taken i.e. active (gaining an advantage) when the ball was struck and therefore offside.

Nope, a save and deliberately playing the ball are entirely different in the rules.

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At the Peterhead Morton game, a ball is played towards McManus who is in an offside position. The last Peterhead defender intercepts the pass but his touch is poor and the ball breaks off him to McManus. Offside is given but I thought that the defender played him on. Did the match officials get it right?

Although it's not an offence anymore to be in an offside position, it's an offence to gain an advantage from being in that position.

McManus gained an advantage, so the ref rightly gave him offside.

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Another glaring example of this rule being ignored/misinterpreted in today's Cup final

Yup, but in the world of the sane that should be off-side every time.

Is this a FIFA or EUFA change attempting to make the game ungovernable by the officials?

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Although it's not an offence anymore to be in an offside position, it's an offence to gain an advantage from being in that position.

McManus gained an advantage, so the ref rightly gave him offside.

Wrong. Under the new interpretation, a player cannot be seen to have gained an advantage if the ball is deliberately played by an opponent. Exception being when receiving the ball directly from a goalkeeper's save.

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Wrong. Under the new interpretation, a player cannot be seen to have gained an advantage if the ball is deliberately played by an opponent. Exception being when receiving the ball directly from a goalkeeper's save.

In that case it's a terrible new interpretation of the rule, and I'm happy for refs to continue to ignore it.

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Wrong. Under the new interpretation, a player cannot be seen to have gained an advantage if the ball is deliberately played by an opponent. Exception being when receiving the ball directly from a goalkeeper's save.

Not specifically a goalkeeper, any player stopping a shot is deemed a save.

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